I have a RC circuit and a imput x=a*expjF. The output is y:(1/1+2*pi*f*R*C)*a*expjF. Why the phase of the output (that for definition is atan(im/re)) in this case is: phase=arctg(F-2*pi*R*C)? Thanks in advance
About phasor
May 08, 2005
5 Replies
The output phase should be:
-arctan(2*pi*f*R*C)
With this Im assuming that F in your equation is the same as f, they are both frequencies. If this is not the case and F is the input phase, then the output phase is:
F-arctan(2*pi*f*R*C)
Dimensionaly arctan(2*pi*R*C) is not a phase, it needs the extra f inside the arctan.
It isn't. The phase of the output is:
F - arctan(2*pi*R*C)
Oops .... that was a typo on my part. I meant: F - arctan(2*pi*f*R*C) I think F is the input phase because the input was given as a*exp(jF) = a*(cos(F) + jsin(F))
or angular frequency
No, I don't think so: there's no time variable (as in omega*t) r*exp(j*theta) is the r-theta (magnitude / angle) expression of a complex number.
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