I am studying the Laplace Transform, and I was rather puzzled to find that the standard tables in the two textbooks we have -- and even the tables I found at the Wolfram Research site -- do not provide an inverse transform for the function F(s) = s.
In fact, the Wolfram site does not even give the inverse transform for F(s) = 1, although my text gives that as the Dirac Delta function of t. However, judging from one of the homework problems, the text I have seems to clearly imply that the inverse of F(s) = s is the derivative with respect to time of the Dirac Delta function of t. However (i) I have no idea how they figure that out, and (ii) I can't even imagine what the derivative of the Dirac Delta function would be.
Can anyone help me out on either score?
Thanks in advance for all replies.
Steve O.
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