Hello All
Say Impedance Z i = jwL + Rs (Rs is in series and it is actually the internal series resistance, this means inductor is an ideal one)
So if we assume this way, then does it mean jwL comes from the ideal inductor? Not from any of the Rs at all?
If we want to find Q of the inductor we will use Q= wL/Rs where SL(or jwL) is not involved totally in the Q
equation.
Am I right ? Kindly enlighthen Thank you
Jason
Q = 2*PI*F*L/R
Q basically is the difference/Ratio between Reactance and Resistance.
the Q Value of BW (Band Width) is Q = F/BW what this means is from the left and right slops of the freq window come into .77 of the center freq window. so this means BW = Fu - Fl Fl being Lower Freq and FR being the Upper window at which reaches .77 of the peak..
inductors have their own natural R (resistance).. this can be used as an imaginary series R. Hope that guided you some.
Hi, Jason -
That is correct.
You do not need S or j, so the relation is Q = wL/R.
John
Thank you John You have been very helpful Also I am lucky that no one sabotaged this enquiry Cheers
Jason
Thank you John You have been very helpful Also I am lucky that no one sabotaged this enquiry Cheers
Jason
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