Why do JFET/FET amps experience the miller effect? There isn't any feedback

Apr 12, 2005 5 Replies

Could someone explain why a self biasing JFET amp (for example:

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would display the miller effect? There isn't any feedback, so there shouldn't be any miller effect.. right?


From what I've read "The miller effect is the effective multiplication

of a impedance across a negative gain device."

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In Erno Boberly's great article "JFETS: The New Frontier Part I"

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he mentions how the JFET amp can have this huge input capacitance with a large gain. But.. these amps don't have feedback... so why?


Thanks Stephen

There is a capacitance between the FET drain and gate. This arises due to the fact that the gate and channel are separated by only a PN junction. That capacitance acts as a feedback element. So your premise, "don't have feedback", does not apply. (Your conclusions would be sensible, otherwise.)

--Larry Brasfield email: donotspam_larry_brasfield@hotmail.com Above views may belong only to me.

It also arises from the capacitance of the silly plastic breadboard thingie.

John

I read in sci.electronics.design that Stephen wrote (in ) about 'Why do JFET/FET amps experience the miller effect? There isn't any feedback', on Tue, 12 Apr 2005:

There IS feedback, via the drain-gate capacitance. This is analogous to the very original Miller effect, due to the anode/plate-control grid capacitance in triode valves/tubes.

Note and admire the bilingual exegesis. (;-)

If the gate voltage goes down by a small amount, the drain voltage goes up by that amount multiplied by the stage gain. So the capacitor demands charge as if it had a capacitance larger by a factor equal to the stage gain.

Regards, John Woodgate, OOO - Own Opinions Only. There are two sides to every question, except \'What is a Moebius strip?\' http://www.jmwa.demon.co.uk Also see http://www.isce.org.uk

What? ?8-\

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