Voltage Reflection Coefficient Question

Aug 06, 2010 2 Replies

In Wes Hayward's book "Introduction to Radio Frequency Design" on page



116, the voltage reflection coefficient is given as gamma = V-/V+ = (z-1)/(z+1) where z is the normalized impedance, Zin/Z_o. As an example, the author then takes a circuit comprised of a 2 volt source into a voltage divider to calculate the output voltage based on reflected voltage waves. For example, with a source resistance of 1 ohm and a load resistance of 0.5 ohm, gamma = (0.5 -1)/(0.5 +1) = -0.333. The forward wave is said to be 1 and the reverse wave is -0.333 leaving a sum of 0.667, which is the same thing you would get using the voltage divider equation: (2*0.5)/(0.5+1) = 0.667.

My point of confusion is that this example only seems to work with a source voltage of 2 volts. Why does a 2 volt supply cause the forward wave to be 1? I'm probably missing something obvious, but could use some insight.


If there's a voltage V across a matched resistive load R connected via a transmission line of characteristic impedance R to a generator with a source impedance R, the Thevenin equivalent of the generator is a voltage soure of e.m.f. 2*V in series with a source resistance R. The open-circuit voltage across the generator output would be 2*V if you disconnected the load.

I don't have access to a copy of the book you quote, but, assuming that you've quoted correctly, I've never before seen such a poor "explanation".

The use of "gamma" for reflection coefficient, rather than the usual "rho", casts doubt over the author's familiarity with the subject.

Transmission lines can have reflections, resistive voltage dividers don't, and cannot have a reflection coefficient. The "example" is nonsense.

Reflection coefficient is simply the (complex) ratio of the reflected voltage to the forward voltage. It is always >=zero

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