> >I have designed a 1:1 transformer that will be used in a low voltage
> > DC:DC converter. I have tested the current at which the transformer
> > saturates by decreasing the frequency of the primary voltage while
> > keeping the secondary open loop.
>
> ** How is that finding a "current" ??
>
> What you have likely found is a combination of primary voltage and frequency
> that (just) fully magnetises the core.
>
> I suppose you realise that the applied voltage and frequency that produce
> any given level of core magnetisation are in inverse proportion ??
>
> > I would like to calculate the theoretical value of the current at
> > which the transformer will saturate.
>
> ** A verbal nonsense.
>
> Seems you have transformers all mixed up with inductors.
>
> What are you REALLY trying to find ??
>
> ..... Phil
Well measuring the primary current while decreasing the frequency will clearly show a fixed value of current where the "saturation knee" starts forming. Is there a way of attaching pictures to these posts?
As for the transformer vs inductor: well a transformer is really two inductors coupled and for our purpose of DC to DC conversion the transformer will have to be analyzed as an inductor as well. Correct me if I am wrong but a transformer with an open loop secondary is nothing more than an inductor.