It's common knowledge that digital technology gives more telephone [4 Khz wide] channels than analog technology - for the same spectrum width. This even with the steep-sided filters and SSB technology.
Since the input and output need to be in analog form, I find digital's claim very unintuitive -- almost doubting it.
Can someone offer an intuitive explanation ?
I guess a 4 HHz bandwidth telco signal contains a lot of redundancy which is not needed to convey the inteligence ?
Speech can even be transmitted as a sequence of 'predetermined sylables' - what are they called again ?
So it seems to me that the improvement over analog methods can't be acheived merely by 'modeming', which would only add entropy. But once it's in the digital format, standard compression [by removing redundancy] can make for more efficiency ?
Thanks for any info,
== Chris Glur.