In the case of an AC single phase induction motor, the *total* motor current drawn/supplied is comprised of two components:
1). The load current which varies with the load applied and is in phase with the applied voltage, and2). The magnetising current, which doesn't vary with the load and lags the applied voltage by 90 degrees.
Is it true to say that "under no-load conditions, the no-load current equals the magnetizing current?"
That's what I read on some web site, but it doesn't read quite right to my way of thinking. Maybe it could be rephrased better. Can anyone clarify?
thanks.