It seemed to make sense to me. What did you find misleading about it?
John
It seemed to make sense to me. What did you find misleading about it?
John
** Cos it falsely implies that noise sources are all the same and so have predictable peak to RMS ratios.
.... Phil
Sure a novice, but for over 15 years now. I thought it was a good presentation of white noise in a 4 mns time frame. I also like the ones on noise in intrumentation amplifiers by the same guy. At least it was helpful to me.
I have tested with OP462 10nV/(Hz)1/2 and the noise in now down to 0.3mV on the scope, in agreement with the calculation.
I now have one since Friday. Bedtime reading for weeks !
There is not, I just want to make it less sensitive to EMI perturbations. So I use a small colpitts oscillator tuned to 150 MHz to test. It seems that often it is at this frequency that you have a lot of dc rectification from the op amps.
Fantasy. Use an adjustable square wave and )linear mix) the noise signal to get two traces of noise. Adjust amplitude of square wave so that the 2 traces "just" merge and measure the square wave amplitude. Now it has been over 40 years, but i think that value will be 3X RMS (the factor is what i do not remember). Else, use a true rms measuring device.
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