Cancellation in Opposed Windings

Can someone please tell me what happens in the following example?

There are two audio signals comprised of summed (linear mixed, overlaid) sine waves of differing frequency but all of equal amplitude.

One is 100Hz summed with 1KHz and 2KHz

The second is a summation of the following:

100Hz INVERTED with respect to the 100Hz of signal one. Plus a summation of 1KHz and 2KHz in phase with the same frequencies in signal one.

Part two.

Each signal is fed into one of two parallel conductors so that the current within each opposes. For simplicity, let's say this results in perfect cancellation.

The question is, will the radiated magnetic field consist entirely of the 100Hz component exclusive of the 1Khz and 2KHz?

Robert Stevens

Reply to
Robert Stevens
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Assuming you mean one of the signals is inverted before being fed into the conductor.

In the near field you have the canceling currents, in the far field the uncanceled currents

So yeah, at distance the magnetic field will be dominated by the 100kHz.

It's like from a distance the two conductors blur into one and the currents sum leaving only the 100kHz visible.

--
  \_(?)_
Reply to
Jasen Betts

At large distances, there will be a 1/r falloff B field which is entirely 100 Hz. At shorter distances, there will be a 1/r^2 falloff B field which has dipole character, and is 1 kHz plus 2 kHz. And inbetween the wires, there will be a field which is higher in amplitude (because both wires' B contributions add), 1 kHz plus 2 kHz.

B field doesn't 'radiate', though; it'll be bunches of loops, as always.

Reply to
whit3rd

Thank you. That ws a very concise answer. May I clarify a few points?

Moving outwardly from the wires, what would be considered to be the starting point of a "large" distance in this context?

What is the significance of the 1KHz plus 2KHz field? Are you saying it is confined to a short distance by virtue of the cancellation process?

What is it about the latter that determines it is not 1/r?

Robert Stevens

Reply to
Robert Stevens

** Huh ???

How can currents oppose in independent wires ? If you must post absurd hypotheticals, at least get your terminology right.

.... Phil

Reply to
Phil Allison

The signals are as described above. Only the 100Hz of one is inverted. Consequently, it adds with the non-inverted one when the currents of the two signals oppose "around" the conductors.

The 1KHz and 2KHz, which are in phase relative to both signals, cancel.

When I say "oppose", I mean that the current in each signal is flowing against each other in adjacent wires.

OK. Thanks.

Robert Stevens

Reply to
Robert Stevens

If the wire-to-wire spacing is 'd', perhaps 4*d for both the dipole-like and the 1/r terms. In very-close-up, one could even expect nonuniformity of current density inside the radius of the wires.

It only cancels at a distance; in the space between the outbound and the return wire, it reinforces, rather than cancelling (and in that space, where 'r' is zero, an 'r' dependence makes no sense).

The approximation of '1/r' dependence belongs to very-long wires, on distance scales where the ends of the linear run are farther (maybe 4 times farther?) than the 'r' value. We know that the long-wire net current is zero (except 100 Hz), so the

1/r contribution at 1kHz+2kHz is zero at distance. Close up (compared to the interwire spacing) and very far (compared to the end-of-linear-run) these approximations don't apply.
Reply to
whit3rd

Thank you for clarifying those points.

I had in mind that the wires were in contact, and mentioned in my OP that, for discussion purpose,s the cancellation of opposing fields was complete.

Of course I know this could never be achieved in practice.

Robert Stevens

Reply to
Robert Stevens

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